I've got this mathematician friend who doesn't believe me when I say that,
if you take the product of any set of primes p in a set P, and enumerate
the
number of integers, in the interval of that length, for which no p divides
n, then you get a value v, that, with increasing y for intervals [1,y] and
a
set P whose members are all the primes <=sqrt(y), converges on being
negligibly different from the number of primes found in that interval. I
had
heard thios is true. How can I persuade him?
Incidentally, he told me about some formulation for finding that value v.
Was it developed by Euler? Can anyone remind me of what I'm thinking of?
With thanks.
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