"Jack" <jj@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote in message
news:I4rgk.22243$gU4.19276@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> I've got this mathematician friend who doesn't believe me when I say
that,
> if you take the product of any set of primes p in a set P, and enumerate
> the number of integers, in the interval of that length, for which no p
> divides n, then you get a value v, that, with increasing y for intervals
> [1,y] and a set P whose members are all the primes <=sqrt(y), converges
on
> being negligibly different from the number of primes found in that
> interval.
Sorry, I should have said the *pro****tion* of integers, in the interval of
product(P), for which no p divides n, converges on being negligibly
different from the *pro****tion* of primes found in that interval.
I had
> heard thios is true. How can I persuade him?
> Incidentally, he told me about some formulation for finding that value
v.
> Was it developed by Euler? Can anyone remind me of what I'm thinking of?
>
> With thanks.
>
|
