Re: Lingua Eurana tradition

On Sat, 31 May 2008, Klaus Dieckmann wrote:

> "Paul Bartlett" wrote:
>
>>> This is another way of using an article. Why using the old paths?
>> 
>> However, why not consider what has been historically effective?  I
>> myself would find it far easier to have a definite article but not an
>> indefinite, rather than the other way around.
>
> Latin has no article, Russian has no article, Turkish has no article. So

> what?

The "so what" is that to the best of my knowledge, if a language has an
article at all, it is more likely to be definite rather than
indefinite.  I do not claim all knowledge.  Are there natural languages
which have only an indefinite article but no definite article?

-- 
Paul Bartlett