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Education > Language English Spelling Reform > Re: Which Makes...
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Re: Which Makes Most Sense?

by Frederick Williams <Frederick_Williams@[EMAIL PROTECTED] Dec 15, 2006 at 05:49 PM

Prisoner at War wrote:
> 
> Herman Rubin wrote:
> >
> >
> > In this case, who cares?  It conveys the same meaning.
> >
> > Likewise, in the simple case of the binomial theorem,
> >
> >       (x + y)^2 = x^2 + 2xy + y^2,
> >
> > it does not matter if the "y" is pronounced "why" or "ygrec".
> 
> Depends on the context.  Obviously, if one did not know French or the
> history of Latin "y" saying "y grec" could be confusing.

Perhaps Herman Rubin's point was this.  The binomial theorem says this:

     (x + squiggle)^2 = x^2 + 2x*squiggle + squiggle^2,

where in place of "squiggle" you write some convenient symbol and utter
some convenient sound.  The information you convey is not adversely
affected by (reasonable) choices of symbol/sound.

(If that wasn't HR's point then my apologies!)

-- 
"The Academy is too large and too vulgar.  Whenever I have gone 
there, there have been either so many people that I have not been 
able to see the pictures, which was dreadful, or so many pictures 
that I have not been able to see the people, which was worse."
 




 1 Posts in Topic:
Re: Which Makes Most Sense?
Frederick Williams <Fr  2006-12-15 17:49:40 

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