Re: Hindi and Urdu

Mirza Ghalib wrote:
> Seeker
>
> You are so ignorant that it is impossible to convince you of
> a fact if it goes against your Islamic beliefs.
> I daresay Islam has fried your brain. Go to
>
> ultra.cto.us.edu.pl/~k****t/langfam.pdf
>
> In that map you will find a map of linguistic families. There are
> hundreds of words in Farsi and Hindi that are derived from Sanskrit,
> For example Asp= horse in Farsi, Ashva in Sanskrit/Hindi.

If Farsi had got its word for horse from Sanskrit, the word in Farsi
would have been [as;va] or [aSva] since it seems unlikely that Iranian
has ever had a v->p sound ****ft.

The standard view is that Iranian aspa and Indic asva both came from
protoAryan. That Iranian and Indic underwent different sound changes
from the sounds in protoAryan is what accounts for the difference
between aspa and as'va..

The standard derivation from PIE is that the Iranian p and Indic v both
came from PIE /qu/; in the case of the word for horse, PIE /equos/ ->
Indic as'vaH.. Since /qu/ is a phoneme, different phonetician-linguists
can come up with different theories that assign it different
pronunciations; one of the theories may even postulate that /qu/ was
pronounced closer to Aryan pronunciations than to the pronunciation in
Latin equus..

To study a case where a language from one of the Aryan sub-branches has
a word from the other, Hindi has both chakra and charka. These are
Iranian and Indic, respectively, and are cognate (came from the same
protoAryan word). Hindi has both words because it got words from both
Indic and Iranian.