by me <noreply@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
Aug 6, 2006 at 06:46 PM
Christopher Culver wrote:
> me <noreply@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> writes:
>> The word for heart in the 3rd version seems a less likely candidate for
>> the PIE word than the words in the first two.
>
> Why do you say that? Both Latin and Greek have no final -d in the
> nominative.
How would you explain the coincidence of a d/t in many daughter languages?
Surely they didn't independently add the same stop? heart, cardiac,
Sanskrit hrday.
> It's possible to reconstruct the kVr back to the
> proto-language, assuming that PIE at some stage before the breakup
> would have lost a final -d in the nominative with compensatory
> lengthening (which we see in Greek). The -d- was retained in the
> oblique stem in Latin, while in Greek the a new oblique stem was
> constructed from analogy on the nominative.
