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Re: Okay, so...
by "B. T. Raven" <nihil@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
Jun 22, 2008 at 09:22 PM
| Iain wrote:
> ...-is, the ablative plural of the first declension is the same as the
> genitive singular of the third declension?
>
> Is that a sick joke? I mean, there's irregularity....and then there's
> linguistic fridge-nuking.
What might that mean?
>
> When the Romans heard a new word, but only heard the ablative or
> genitive, how did they know which declension it was of?
>
> ~Iain
Genitive singular marker -is in the third declension was (and often is)
pronounced short, like the end of the English word "miss." The ablative
plural marking in the first and second declensions -is was pronounced
like the end of the proper family name "Meese." So there would be no
confusion even in rapid speech.
Eduardus


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13 Posts in Topic:
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Iain <iain_inkster@[EM |
2008-06-22 14:17:39 |
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"Ed Cryer" < |
2008-06-22 23:10:33 |
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"B. T. Raven" & |
2008-06-22 21:22:12 |
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Klaus Scholl <klaus@[E |
2008-06-23 04:33:36 |
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"B. T. Raven" & |
2008-06-23 08:15:27 |
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Klaus Scholl <klaus@[E |
2008-06-24 00:27:44 |
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"B. T. Raven" & |
2008-06-24 07:46:38 |
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"Alan Jones" &l |
2008-06-23 08:23:57 |
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"B. T. Raven" & |
2008-06-23 08:09:29 |
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Will Parsons <oudeis@[ |
2008-06-24 01:16:41 |
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"Alan Jones" &l |
2008-06-24 08:09:40 |
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Will Parsons <oudeis@[ |
2008-06-24 00:48:31 |
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"Arved Sandstrom&quo |
2008-06-23 12:49:38 |
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