Re: =?ISO-8859-1?Q?IV-form_of_the_Arabic_verb_'j=E2da'?=

"bethalan" <bethalan@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote in message
news:<PrG9d.6785$2u1.6143@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>...
> So far, I've been unable to find a reference to [ajwada]; the existence 
> of a Form IV [ajwada] would make theoretical sense if there existed a 
> Form I [jawada], but this I can also find no reference to.  Of course, I


AFAIK existance of form I *jawada is not a neccessary conditon. both
forms may exist and they might have slightly different meanings.


> could be wrong . . . and then again, perhaps Bescherelle could be wrong.

>  Bescherelle's forte has been French grammar and I suppose their work on

> Arabic grammar could be flawed . . . ??
>   "Raymond Roy" <belamiNoSpam@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote in message 
> news:41615076.2889880@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>   Are there Arabic verbs that have more than one form for a given Form?
> 
>   Let's consider the verb 'j da' (to be or become good). Could Form IV 
> be
>   'ajwada' as well as 'aj da' ?
> 
>   According to my Bescherelle, both form exist. If only one of them
>   correspond to Form IV of 'j da', which form is the other one?
> 
>   Shukran.
> 
>   Raymond
> 
> --