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Education > Statistics > Re: identifiabi...
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Re: identifiability of a statistical model?

by Richard Ulrich <Rich.Ulrich@[EMAIL PROTECTED] > Apr 19, 2008 at 10:06 PM

On Fri, 18 Apr 2008 13:30:10 -0700 (PDT), Luna Moon
<lunamoonmoon@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote:

> Hi all,
> 
> In statistical modelling of an insurance problem, I wanted to model
> the relation between the some premium and the death incidents in a
> sample pool, consisting of say, 100, subjects.
> 
> The model has a Poisson process as one of its component. Now we are
> looking at the problem of estimation the parameters of this model.
> 
> The problem is that there is no death event in our data sample. Does
> that render the Poisson component of the model unidentifiable?

I suppose someone might apply the term "unidentifiable" but
that seems too weak. 

When all the responses on a dichotomy are on one side,
you have "no information"  for the purpose of most statistical
tests.

> 
> I guess this is also a model-comparison problem -- with no event of
> death, can I distinguish between a model with the counting(Poisson)
> component vs. a model with no counting (Poisson) component? Does the
> information about "no death or no counts" is itself some information
> for identifying the counting model?

Statistically, you can model a rate as "low" and discard any
hypothesis that requires a higher rate.  But this looks like an
experiment that failed to show anything, for lack of power.


-- 
Rich Ulrich 

http://www.pitt.edu/~wpilib/index.html
 




 5 Posts in Topic:
identifiability of a statistical model?
Luna Moon <lunamoonmoo  2008-04-18 13:30:10 
Re: identifiability of a statistical model?
Richard Ulrich <Rich.U  2008-04-19 22:06:45 
Re: identifiability of a statistical model?
Ilmari Karonen <usenet  2008-04-30 17:28:11 
Re: identifiability of a statistical model?
Luna Moon <lunamoonmoo  2008-04-20 10:40:19 
Re: identifiability of a statistical model?
Richard Ulrich <Rich.U  2008-04-20 20:49:23 

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