by Art Kendall <Arthur.Kendall@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
>
Apr 21, 2008 at 12:30 PM
yes it is analogous. The approach is often called using an omnibus
test. The reasoning goes like this. As with the Anova situation you
can have a significant overall test when none of the specific test are
significant. This is due to the error term in the omnibus tests
accounting for more of the total.
Some people contrast the approach with an omnibus test followed post hoc
by all pairs of differences with an approach with a priori contrasts
specified.
Art Kendall
Social Research Consultants
beginner1.mat@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
wrote:
> Can anyone tell me the advantage of running a MANOVA rather than
> multiple ANOVA for each dependent variable? I ran 3 ANOVAs on 3
> different dependent variables and was criticized for this approach,
> but I do not know why. Is this similar to running multiple t-tests
> instead of an ANOVA? Any help, and/or references would be appreciated!
