by beginner1.mat@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Apr 21, 2008 at 10:37 AM
On Apr 21, 5:30=A0am, Art Kendall <Arthur.Kend...@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> wrote:
> yes it is analogous. =A0The approach is often called using an omnibus
> test. =A0The reasoning goes like this. =A0As with the Anova situation
you
> can have a significant overall test when none of the specific test are
> significant. =A0This is due to the error term in the omnibus tests
> accounting for more of the total.
>
> Some people contrast the approach with an omnibus test followed post hoc
> by all pairs of differences with an approach with a priori contrasts
> specified.
>
> Art Kendall
> Social Research Consultants
>
>
>
> beginner1....@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
wrote:
> > Can anyone tell me the advantage of running a MANOVA rather than
> > multiple ANOVA for each dependent variable? =A0I ran 3 ANOVAs on 3
> > different dependent variables and was criticized for this approach,
> > but I do not know why. =A0Is this similar to running multiple t-tests
> > instead of an ANOVA? =A0Any help, and/or references would be
appreciated=
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>
> - Show quoted text -
Thank you for responding! So, if since I ran multiple ANOVA tests,
would adjusting the alpha level (like a Bonferroni) be appropriate, or
should one always use the omnibus test?
